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Jeremy Siegel has an absolutely astonishing argument in the WSJ today, designed to prove that stocks are quite cheap really: he says that S&P "miscalculates" the earnings of the S&P 500, for the purpose of calculating the index's p/e ratio.

The way S&P does it, they take the aggregate market capitalization of the S&P 500 (the price) and divide it by the aggregate earnings of the S&P 500 (the earnings). Seems sensible enough to me. But Siegel has a better idea: why not ignore the companies which lose money, and just concentrate on the companies which make money? If you do that, then stocks look much less overpriced!

Siegel doesn't ignore the money-losing companies entirely. But, he says, "firms with huge losses generally have extremely low market values", and so he decides to minimize their impact in his calculations by weighting earnings according to market cap. Clever, eh? But the idea that this is the "accurate" way of totting up earnings is just silly.

Earnings don't change according to market capitalization. The p/e ratio is an interesting animal: the numerator changes from day to day and even from second to second, while the denominator changes only once a quarter. It's an indicator of how the market (the numerator) is reacting to reality (the denominator). But under Siegel's method, the denominator changes every second as well. And rather than dividing the market by reality, we end up dividing the market by itself. Which is much less useful.

Update: Paul Kedrosky weighs in:

At the very least Siegel should have recalculated the series over history to show what his new cap-weighted earnings multiple would look like. Trotting out a single adjusted figure with no context of what cheap now means in S&P 2.0 Siegel-world is meaningless.

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  •  
    bmesco1: You're being obtuse. This is a discussion about the accuracy of the P/E values assigned to the S&P. This isn't a discussion about how P/E itself is useful by itself.

    Larry House: Investors don't "need" anything. Some people buy stocks, some sell them, others like you just go in cash and try to convince themselves that investors "need" to see what you see. To each their own. Live by your choices but lose the attitude that you see the light and others don't.

    Siegel's point is that the P/E ratios of the different components of the S&P are extremely unvensly distributed. I can see that arguing that this makes stocks "cheap" is debatable.

    But if, taken to the extreme, 499 companies in the index made 100 million in a quarter, and one company lost 50 billion (as AIG did), it's pretty obvious that using the S&P's method would assign a negative P/E to the entire index, which would be ridiculous and completely irrelevant to the cheapness of the market as a whole.

    I don't know that dividing by the market cap is the answer, but I can clearly see that S&P's method isn't very smart either.
    Feb 25 04:43 PM | Link | Reply
  •  
    Wow, that is pretty ridiculous. I understand Siegel's point, though, and weighting based on some factor unrelated to share price might be a good idea - such as total revenue, which would weigh Exxon at 100 times Jones Apparel, versus the 1,200 or so multiple difference in their market cap.
    Feb 25 04:56 PM | Link | Reply
  •  
    The SPX is market weighted, so the earnings should be added up in proportion to each weighting. Equal weighting the earnings and market cap weighting the price is not accurate.
    Feb 25 05:25 PM | Link | Reply
  •  
    I think it's a classic "it depends", depending upon what you are trying to accomplish and measure.

    User 361751 and Siegel are correct if you are trying to assess what the overall market price being paid (in the S&P 500 companies) for the overall corporate earnings -- for instance, if you were an index fund this might be a meaningful metric.

    If I'm an individual shareholder deciding (using Siegel's example) a share of Exxon or a share of Jones Apparel, then the weighting doesn't do much for me, both Felix and Bespoke are correct.
    Feb 25 05:37 PM | Link | Reply
  •  

    Actually Siegel is right.
    You say:

    Earnings don't change according to market capitalization. The p/e ratio is an interesting animal: the numerator changes from day to day and even from second to second, while the denominator changes only once a quarter. It's an indicator of how the market (the numerator) is reacting to reality (the denominator). But under Siegel's method, the denominator changes every second as well. And rather than dividing the market by reality, we end up dividing the market by itself. Which is much less useful.

    You're ownership of those earnings is changing with every individual wiggle of individual shares too. You just don't know it.
    Feb 25 06:13 PM | Link | Reply
  •  

    BTW - I don't mean to say ownership. I mean to say when you own the S&P 500, your own implied PE is changing with every market wiggle of the individual shares down below because those wiggles change each indivual companies PE ratio. When you buy the S&P 500, that is effectively what you are buying and that is what Siegel is trying to show. So yes, the denominator is always changing as a buyer of the S&P 500.


    On Feb 25 06:13 PM kdo wrote:

    >
    > Actually Siegel is right.
    > You say:
    >
    > Earnings don't change according to market capitalization. The p/e
    > ratio is an interesting animal: the numerator changes from day to
    > day and even from second to second, while the denominator changes
    > only once a quarter. It's an indicator of how the market (the numerator)
    > is reacting to reality (the denominator). But under Siegel's method,
    > the denominator changes every second as well. And rather than dividing
    > the market by reality, we end up dividing the market by itself. Which
    > is much less useful.
    >
    > You're ownership of those earnings is changing with every individual
    > wiggle of individual shares too. You just don't know it.
    Feb 25 06:22 PM | Link | Reply
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    Siegel is right if you do the calculation for the index's p/e ratio but not for the individual company where the denominator needs to be fixed according to its quarterly earnings.
    Feb 25 10:57 PM | Link | Reply
  •  
    The PE ratio is indeed imperfect, and the imperfection is magnified when attempting to assign it to an index. But there is no need to replace the imperfect PE ratio in this case.

    Measures that are useful in the case of individual equities often lose their usefulness when applied to an entire class, index, or even when used to compare industries...

    Sales to book, price to book, and EPS yield for example, lose their relative usefulness when evaluating alternate energy start-ups, and the miners have always suffered from low PE ratios.

    Perhaps the argument is not so much whether or not Dr. Siegel is 'right', 'wrong', or 'silly'...

    I think that we might be trying to force a square peg into a round hole!
    Feb 25 11:21 PM | Link | Reply
  •  
    The reason you need to look at more than just the simple sum of earnings across an index is the ability of the members of the index to distribute earnings. That said I am not sure that market cap weighting is the right answer either.

    Take the simple example of an index of 2 (Companies A & B) with equal market caps. If A has earnings of $1 and B has a loss of $1 and assuming you can only distribute earnings the ability of the index to distribute earnings is $1 not $0.
    Feb 26 12:20 AM | Link | Reply
  •  
    I will trust Prof. Jeremy Siegel over these young stupid traders any time. How many financial history books do these SA authors read? They are just loud mouthing pos (just like Fast Money traders on CNBC).
    Feb 26 12:55 AM | Link | Reply
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    The fact that Siegel is so hung up on P/E in the first place shows how noobish he is to the market. P/E is what you play with in JR High when you are fake stock picking. Someone please tell him to stop wasting our time dicking around with this number and do some real work please.
    Feb 26 01:51 AM | Link | Reply
  •  
    This is about the fourth article I've read on this. Don't see why everyone makes such a big deal out of it to be honest. Siegal has a legitimate argument --- you could calculate it numerous ways and all of them would have their flaws. No reason Siegal is "an idiot" for suggesting it should be done one way as opposed to another. It doesn't really matter how you calculate it --- reality stays the same.
    Feb 26 06:46 AM | Link | Reply
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    Siegal is right from the point of view of an investor. An investor who is trying to decide whether to put money into a S&P 500 index fund is not concerned with the aggregate profits of the S&P 500 which implies an equal weight of one. The S&P 500 is weighted by market capitalization so the best measure of the earnings of the S&P 500 must be weighted by market capitalization.
    Feb 26 09:39 AM | Link | Reply
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    Siegel's merely calculating the different average, the average of those company's making money, he answers a valid question;
    How over/under priced are those company's that are making profits?

    Felix, you are really grasping for attention here!!
    Feb 26 11:14 AM | Link | Reply
  •  
    Siegel is correct. The current calculation of the S&P 500 PE is not a true PE, in that it does not represent actual earnings per share for the group of 500. Take the 40 per share and compare it to the SP 500 without market cap weighting.

    However, for historical purposes, Siegel's argument does not help much. Changing the calculus will give us apples to oranges. Also, as these companies shrink drastically in market cap (C, BAC, etc), thier impact on the SP500 average likewise diminishes.

    So in conclusion, if you look like Larry Fine, but you teach in the Ivy League, you can get published in the WSJ (but I doubt it helps pick up B girls)
    Feb 26 03:38 PM | Link | Reply
  •  
    actually it represents the earnings per share of owning the S&P, as it should...(market cap/divisor)/(company earnings/divisor)....d... cancels so ultimately you are dividing market cap by earnings. Price changes are market cap weighted, raw earnings are not. He is wrong. The S&P P/E ratio may have other short comings as an indicator of actual overall market cheapness but that is not the argument he laid out in his piece. He said S&P's calc is wrong which is not correct.
    Feb 26 06:03 PM | Link | Reply
  •  
    I have written to S&P to request a clarification of the matter. If they respond, I will post the answer. More likely than an individualized response, they may prepare some kind of general public document for distribution. Today I have read over 50 comments here and there reacting to the article and it obvious that the exact calculation method is understood, or misunderstood, in widely different ways. Best to have S&P directly say exactly what they do and why they do it that way.

    Feb 26 07:44 PM | Link | Reply
  •  
    Please a response from S&P would be great. in the mean time here is the a spreadsheet from S&P that illustrates exactly what they are doing..

    www2.standardandpoors....
    Feb 27 09:34 AM | Link | Reply
  •  
    a response from S&P would be great, in the mean time here is a spreadsheet from S&P with their calc:

    www2.standardandpoors....
    Feb 27 09:35 AM | Link | Reply
  •  
    Wow. first the Copula model and now S&P earnings...Is there anything Felix Salomon can get right? DON"T USE TOP DOWN P/E!!! You might as well guess the size of an Iceberg b what's pointing out of the water!!!
    Mar 14 08:14 PM | Link | Reply
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