Accounting Antics Lift I-Bank Earnings - Barron's 11 comments
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Barron's Andrew Bary thinks Wall Street brokerages are using some fancy accounting in order to post estimate-beating earnings even as things worsen for the sector.
Here's his argument: Companies issue debt to raise funds. When investors shun its debt, holders have a harder time reselling it, causing its yield to rise and its price to fall. In theory, then, the issuing company could presently buy its own debt back for cheaper than it could have in the previous quarter, resulting in an accounting gain.
Firms have been booking the gains, and they're not insignificant. In their Q1 reports, Morgan Stanley (MS) reported an $848M gain; Lehman (LEH) $600M; and Goldman (GS) $300M. JPMorgan (JPM) hasn't reported Q1 yet, but it squeezed out a $1.3B gain in 2007.
Bary's contention, and that of analysts like Bernstein's Brad Hintz, is that since the companies have no intention of retiring the debt on the cheap, the gains are fairy tales -- because the debt will eventually mature at par, and mark-to-market gains will reverse over time. Lehman's Q1 of $0.81/share (vs. $0.70 consensus) would have been a lot less shiny $0.11/share without the accounting gain. Morgan Stanley's $1.45/share (vs. $1 consensus) would have been merely in-line.
Meanwhile, debt spreads have tightened as investors seem to think the worst is behind us -- which could mean a reversal of these gains in coming quarters.
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Here's what I don't get: Surely analyst consensus estimates take these adjustments into account. If so, how can Bary contend that the mark-to-market adjustments are allowing investment banks to (subversively) beat estimates? Also, as Bary concedes, mark-to-market works both ways -- assets are also marked to market. One could easily argue that much of the debt securities massively written down over the past two quarters is destined to mature at par, assuming the issuers don't default in the meantime.
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Also, the likelihood of the IB's staying solvent (at least now with help from the Fed) is much greater than all the underwater homeowners eventually paying everything off. As a CPA and former auditor, I can tell you that writing down your own debt would not pass the smell test with me unless it came with a going-concern opinion.
I suspect their own CPAs will tell them the same thing come year-end unless they want to go the way of Arthur Andersen...
The reason why liabilities should not be MTMed:
Market prices in a default probability and loss given default to price a Bond. Even if default probability goes up but, Loss given default remains the same, market value of the bond decreases.
However, if the firm were to default and liquidated, the creditor would get the same amount.
So I guess if Loss Given default changes, then there may be a case to MTM down liabilities. However, if this parameter remains the same and only default probability goes up, MTM-ing of liabilities is wrong!
The reason why liabilities should not be MTMed:
Market prices in a default probability and Expected loss given default to price a Bond. Even if default probability goes up but, Loss given default remains the same, market value of the bond decreases. In both scenarios if the firm were to default and get liquidated, the creditor would get the same amount.
So I guess if Loss Given default changes, then there may be a case to MTM down liabilities. However, if this parameter remains the same and only default probability goes up, MTM-ing of liabilities is wrong!
The other side is when the debt is securitized and simply passed through to other investors. The asset has to be marked to market which books a loss but the liability could not until the recent FaS Rule 159 became effective. Mortgage REITs have large negative EPS simply because the of the writedown of only one side. When FAS 159 is applied the book values of these companies take a good positive jump. They have their problems and risks but as a group have a 25% short interest, yield 20% in dividends and will show a large jump in book value when Q1 earnings are released.
In this case, FAS Rule 159 makes a lot of sense.
If so, how do you see it affecting earnings reports and values of REITs with Q1 reports?