Arnold Kling poses a question for Paul Krugman. Here's how I would answer.
Early in 2007, the price of oil was $60 a barrel. Recently, it has been above $130 a barrel. Which of the following does Paul Krugman believe:
(a) market fundamentals justified $60 a barrel then, and they justify $130 a barrel now; or
(b) market fundamentals justified a much higher price in 2007?
...We know that Krugman does not believe that today's oil price is out of line with fundamentals. Krugman's view, in effect, is that if speculators artificially boost the price of oil, then supply will exceed demand, and the excess has to go somewhere. Where are the inventories?
This view ought to hold in reverse. If speculators artificially kept the price of oil too low early in 2007, then demand should have exceeded supply and inventories should have vanished. Yet they did not. So is Krugman forced by his model to conclude that the price of oil of $60 also reflected fundamentals?
The "fundamentals" price of oil depends on a number of factors that cannot be perfectly foreseen. Among these are (1) will the world enter a deep and prolonged recession in 2007, and (2) will global oil production in 2007 be higher than it was in 2006? Today, we know that the answer to both questions is no, and conditional on knowing that answer, we can see that $60/barrel was too low a price. But a year ago, no one knew those answers.
Likewise, the price of oil today is very much dependent on the answer to questions such as (1) will the world enter a deep and prolonged recession in 2008, and (2) will global oil production in 2008 be higher than it was in 2007? Today, we do not know the answer to these questions. If the answer is yes, the price of oil today is much too high. If the answer is no, the price could still be too low.
As for the specific question of "where are the inventories," let's be a little more precise about the question being asked. The correct question is, Did the movement along the demand curve that resulted from the increased price show up as an increase in inventories? The correct answer is, no, it was offset by a shift in the demand curve for newly industrialized countries and the oil producing countries. For example, China may have consumed a half million more barrels of oil per day in 2007 compared with 2006.
Where are the inventories? China already burned them.
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This article has 4 comments:
- GH
- 99 Comments
Jun 27 09:03 AMThis conflation of the two kinds of crude is being purposely planted by various players - the same ones who are hiding their manipulation behind the word "speculation"... This is the latest favorite style of lying: use an ambiguous word. Various media that should know better are happily playing along to attract eyeballs.
- Whidbey
- 772 Comments
Jun 27 12:18 PM- Still Laughing
- 6 Comments
Jun 29 02:26 AMI think there are two groups of people who are calling the high price speculation: those that want it to be because it's just so expensive and those that realize that the high price invites substitution. In other words, the very existence of the high price is why the price will crash. I think it's also why even executives in oil producing companies are starting to make divergent statements about oil prices. There are those that want to reap the short term profit (so they say, "the price will go up to xxx"), and those that realize a substitution scenario would have a far greater and lasting negative impact on their firms (and they say "we're supplying more than the price would suggest" in an attempt to drive the price down.)
- Alan von Altendorf
- 264 Comments
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