Begs the question: If "as long as government stimuli remain in place" stems "an extended down move," why don't we keep "government stimuli" in place all the time and never have a down move?
As long as inflation is subdued and the US consumer is focused on its balance sheet rather than consumption, reducing the trade deficit, keeping interest rates low...
As long as the growing world economies continue provide an export market....
As long as businesses continue to reduce debt, improve cash flow, and keep inventories low....
Should note that government stimuli were in place in March when the S&P touched 680.
Note that this morning Fitch said the CRE market was "going down the tubes fast" (my words actually). How can that not lead to a "selloff" or at least a major correction? (not sure how you tell the difference).
The fiscal stimulus has succeeded in doing little more than increasing transfer payments and pulling forward demand. Its expiration will most definitely knock the wind out of the "G" in the old Y = C + I + G + NX equation we all learned about in Macroecon 501.
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As long as inflation is subdued and the US consumer is focused on its balance sheet rather than consumption, reducing the trade deficit, keeping interest rates low...
As long as the growing world economies continue provide an export market....
As long as businesses continue to reduce debt, improve cash flow, and keep inventories low....
Note that this morning Fitch said the CRE market was "going down the tubes fast" (my words actually). How can that not lead to a "selloff" or at least a major correction? (not sure how you tell the difference).